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Do the 7 churches in Revelation still exist is .
a question that most scholars agree on and that is the focus of this book.
I believe that the seven churches in Revelation still exist. But they are under different leadership at the present time. (By "leadership" I mean control of their own destiny and not just the leadership of a church in the past).
But I will explain why I believe this in just a bit.
This is, without a doubt, the hardest topic in my book because of the incredible amount of misinformation and downright lies about Revelation I've found. So I'll try to be as unbiased as I can.
If you are familiar with Revelation in the King James Version, then it may be easy to see the problem. The KJV translators had their own agenda and wanted to make it easier to follow Revelation. The result of their work is the King James Version. However, they went a bit too far with their translation.
In the KJV, most of the 7 letters to the churches start out with the word "to". In other words, the KJV translators took the word "to" literally.
For example, a quick study of the KJV reveals that the KJV translators changed the word "he" from "the Lord" to "he" in the following example. Notice how the KJV has changed the word "to" from a "to" to a "to":
"When he had taken meat, the four beasts and four and twenty elders fell upon their faces before him, and worshipped him." (Rev 4:6)
This passage is from the Greek, and the word "to" is a preposition that simply means "in the presence of" or "to".
You can look this up for yourself if you have a copy of the Greek. This is the actual word from the Greek. It's very simple and easy to translate.
When he had taken meat, the four beasts and four and twenty elders fell on their faces before him, and worshiped him. (Rev 4:6)
The KJV translators have left out the preposition "to" and have just taken the "to" literally. As a result, the KJV translators changed the word "he" from the "Lord" to "he" in this verse:
"He" would mean that the four beasts and four and twenty elders fell on their faces, just as "he" (Jesus) had done in Luke 19:36. The word "he" doesn't apply to Jesus, but applies to "the four beasts and four and twenty elders".
In Greek, the word for "he" can be applied to a man (as here) or to a person (as in 2 Timothy 1:11). There is no reason that the KJV translators would have "conflated" the words when "he" is applicable to both the person and the man.
In fact, the KJV translators' error of translation goes beyond simply changing the word "to" from a "to" to a "to". They change the words from "four" to "fifty". For example,
"And there were fifty thousand upon their feet, and on their toes, and before them" (Rev 4:7)
Notice that the KJV translators changed the word "four" to the word "fifty" when it could not have applied to more than one group of people. This type of error alone shows that the KJV translators had a goal in mind other than just the translation.
However, this is not the only error of translation in the KJV. The KJV translators also did similar changes in other verses. (I won't point out the errors because I am just pointing them out as an example to show that the KJV translators didn't translate as the ancient translators would have done).
The KJV translators were not translating "as the Lord intended" for the King James Version, but they were interpreting Revelation "in the KJV way."
We now know that the KJV translators were NOT translating as the Greek original. When we look up the Greek, we find that these prepositions "to" and "before" would be used quite differently than the KJV translators used them.
So, if we can find passages in the KJV where the "KJV translators changed the prepositions from "to" to "before" or where they have made changes to the word "fifty" that are not found in the Greek, then we will know that these were translated from the KJV translators' agenda and not from what was actually meant in the Greek.
As an example, I just finished reviewing all the verses from the KJV where "before
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